
it helps clarify things better for me.
i think His Words were in force when He spoke them.
Reuben wrote:Luke 16:16 (KJV)
16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
This makes it clear that the Law ended and the inauguration of a new dispensation was beginning. Notice the following verses where Jesus changes immediately the system.
Matthew 5:21 (KJV)
21 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
Matthew 5:22 (KJV)
22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
Matthew 5:27 (KJV)
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
Matthew 5:28 (KJV)
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
The question then becomes "what was the time between the preaching of John and Jesus dying on the cross?" Was his words in force during those 3 years? Or, were they not in force until after his death?